2. Inferences Made with relations to Baptism

To open this section I wish to make a quote from the Dean now deceased, God bless his soul, Dr Kinley. He has stated, “…and proven scripturally that all carnal ordinances (water baptism, Passover suppers, ceremonies, circumcision, Passover feasts, foot washing, etc.) practiced by Christendom today, have been erroneously carried over and misplaced in this Spiritual Dispensation and Age of Grace." The clergy has ignorantly called YAHSHUA THE MESSIAH a LIAR, in saying that He INSTITUTED rather than FULFILLED all carnal ordinances that were under the Mosaic Law (Matt. 3:13-15, Matt. 5:17-18, Luke 24:25-27, 44)."

Now the first thing to address is the age of grace. You would probably be better able to offer a more enlightened position, but base on scriptures. In I Petros, Petros formally known as Cephas makes reference to the Old Testament and illuminates the concept of grace. He speaks of the age of grace being ushered in by the resurrection of the Messiah. If Peter got it wrong then I shall not be held accountable since he has led me astray. But since I am convinced that if anyone would have gotten it right it would have been he who followed the Messiah.

The concept of baptism began with John as he baptized with water onto repentance. Yashua gave it new meaning and after His resurrection not before, but after, commanded the disciples to baptize ALL PEOPLE from ALL NATIONS. Base on the practices of the disciples post resurrection, we can see that they continued this practice of water baptism as it was renewed as an ordinance to be entered into based on the New Testament of Yashua’s blood written upon our hearts. This was not a practice to be done away with as it relates to the coming of the Holy Spirit since this continued after the manifestation of the Holy Spirit. Again, I must draw from Petros as recorded in the Acts of God division 10.47; "Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have."

Not only was this a practice upheld after the resurrection, it was also practiced after the coming of the Holy Spirit.

Now as it relates to the meaning of Baptism which really is the least important aspect of your argument since it has more than one lexical meaning. It is important to know that baptize/baptism are anglicized versions of the Greek word baptizo which means “to dip,” “to immerse” or “to submerge”. The significance of baptism as seen in the living out of the New Testament that was written on the hearts of the apostles and other disciples is always indicative of an individuals faith in Yahweh, the Messiah and the message of the Messiah. It takes on another meaning based on the practices of the day by those who were in the business of dying clothes by dipping them in large tanks of scarlet dye. When the garments were removed from the dye it would be identical to the dye in which it was immersed.

As it relates to the prophecy of John the Baptizer, it is Christ who baptizes in fire and in the Spirit. This is not for any human to claim to do. The disciples facilitated instances where this happened, but they never claimed to baptize anyone in the Spirit or with fire.

These are the two major inferences I noticed in your questions. Let the readers be the judge of my attempt to posit an argument in answering your questions. If I have failed to answer any other important aspect of your 11 questions please let me know.